Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 22.06.2025 07:49

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Why Sonics expansion talk could heat up this summer - The Seattle Times
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Former Red Sox All-Star Designated For Assignment One Day After Season Debut - NESN
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.